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Exam : CENP PW0-300
Title : Certified Wireless Network Expert

1. According to the IEEE 802.11 standard (as amended), transmit power information is carried in which frames?
A. TPC Report frame
B. ADDTS Response frame
C. Probe Response frame
D. Beacon frame
E. Channel Switch Announcement frame
F. Measurement Report frame
Answer: ACD

2. When using a protocol analyzer to capture conversations over a WLAN, you may often encounter encrypted data frames. Most WLAN protocol analyzers have a feature that allows the analyst to save and reload the captured frames into memory at a later time. Using this functionality, what task can be performed?
A. When IEEE 802.1X/LEAP is being used as the WLAN security mechanism, the authentication response frame can be replayed from a saved trace file at a later time to successfully authenticate a hacker.
B. If a user name and password for an IEEE 802.1X/EAP-TTLS security implementation can be obtained through social engineering tactics, the user name and password can be entered into the analyzer to decrypt the frames from a saved trace file.
C. An analyst can search through the captured frames looking for RADIUS frames that will disclose the user’s password.
D. Encrypted frames may be decrypted offline, after they are captured, by entering a WEP key or WPA passphrase into the analyzer.
Answer: D

3. Given: When the delayed Block Ack policy is used between two QoS STAs, the recipient must respond to a BlockAckReq frame with an ACK frame. The recipient must then send its BlockAck response frame in a subsequently obtained TXOP.
Once the contents of the BlockAck frame have been prepared, the recipient must _______________.
A. Send the BlockAck response frame to the originator in the earliest possible TXOP using the highest priority AC.
B. Send an ATIM to the originator signifying that the BlockAck response frame is ready for transmission.
C. Include the TID of the BlockAckReq in the next TXOP Request to the HC.
D. Wait for one PIFS after the next Beacon and transmit the BlockAck response to the originator using the same AC as the BlockAckReq frame.
Answer: A

4. A QoS STA obtains a TXOP for an access category (AC) after what two parameters are met?
A. After a scheduled service period ends
B. The medium is idle at the AIFS[AC] slot boundary
C. The backoff time for that AC has expired
D. After a Block ACK Response
E. After a Target Beacon Transmission Time (TBTT)
Answer: BC

5. How long, in microseconds, is the required Slot Time announced by an AP in an ERP BSS when both HR-DSSS and ERP-OFDM client stations are associated to the AP?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 10
E. 20
Answer: E

6. The IEEE 802.11 standard allows for frame fragmentation. Which two fields in the IEEE 802.11 frame are involved in numbering data frame fragments and notifying the receiving station when all of the fragments of a data frame have been received?
A. Capability Information field
B. Frame Control field
C. ERP Information field
D. Sequence Control field
E. DS Parameter field
F. Ordered Service field
Answer: BD

7. In a Split MAC wireless network architecture, lightweight APs map user priorities (UPs) specified by the QoS STA on incoming frames to ___________.
A. IEEE 802.1D Frame Precedence Values
B. GRE Priority Bits
C. IEEE 802.1Q Tag Protocol Identifiers
D. IP Differentiated Services Code Points
E. QoS Control Header Values
Answer: D

8. Given: An ingress frame arrives on the Ethernet port of an autonomous AP marked with an IEEE 801D user priority value.
Which IEEE 802.1D user priority values (by name) will assure the data payload carried by the Ethernet frame gets assigned to the highest priority WMM queue?
A. Controlled Load
B. Network Control
C. Video
D. Voice
E. Best Effort
F. Excellent Effort
Answer: BD

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Exam : CENP PW0-200
Title : Certified Wireless Security Professional(CWSP)

1. In this diagram illustrating an example of the IEEE 802.11 standard’s 4-Way Handshakewhat is the purpose of the ANonce and SNonce?
A. They are used to pad Message 1 and Message 2 so there is no empty space in the frame.
B. The IEEE 802.11 standard requires that all cryptographic frames contain a nonce for security purposes.
C. They are added together and used as the GMKfrom which the GTK is derived.
D. They are values used in the derivation of the Pairwise Transient Key.
Answer: D

2. Given: John Smith often works from home and wireless hotspots rather than commuting to the office. His laptop connects to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs.
To safeguard his datawhat wireless security policy items should be implemented?
A. Use an IPSec VPN for remote connectivity
B. Use an HTTPS captive portal for authentication at hotspots
C. Use personal firewall software on his laptop
D. Use a protocol analyzer on his laptop to monitor for risks
E. Use 802.1X/PEAPv0 to connect to the corporate office network
Answer: AC

3. What WIPS parameter is configured to generate notifications?
A. Mobile unit density violations
B. Admission control status
C. Sensor sensitivity levels
D. Policy threshold values
Answer: D

4. Given: ABC Company has a WLAN controller with three access points15 client devicesand uses WPA2-Personal for WLAN security.
What statement about ABC Company’s WLAN security is true?
A. Intruders may obtain the passphrase with an offline dictionary attack and gain network accessbut will be unable to decrypt data traffic.
B. Traffic injection attacks are possible because the transmitter lacks frame numbering.
C. An unauthorized wireless client device cannot associatebut can eavesdrop on some data because WPA2-Personal does not encrypt broadcast traffic.
D. An authorized WLAN user with a protocol analyzer can decode data frames of other authorized users if he captures that user’s 4-Way Handshake.
E. Because WPA2-Personal uses Open System authentication followed by a 4-Way Handshakehijacking attacks are easily performed.
Answer: D

5. What happens in a bit flipping attack against an IEEE 802.11 device?
A. An attacker captures an encrypted framemodifies the ciphertextmodifies the ICV to hide the change to the ciphertextand then transmits the frame to appear as if it is from the original source.
B. An attacker uses a non-linear Message Integrity Check (MIC) on his computer to form a wireless crossover connection with the target computer.
C. An attacker injects data into a wireless transmission that results in a memory access exception at the target system for the purpose of breaching security.
D. An attacker sends each frame with the first bit alternating between 0 and 1causing the target computer to disable encryption synchronization.
E. An attacker captures an encrypted authentication frameand then executes a cracking algorithm against each 0 and 1 in the frame. After the frame is crackedit is used to authenticate the attacker’s computer.
Answer: A

6. What policies would prevent peer-to-peer attacks against wireless-enabled corporate laptop computers when the laptops are also used on public access networks such as wireless hotspots?
A. Require managed personal firewall software on each laptop.
B. Require secure applications such as POP3/SHTTPSand SSH2.
C. Require VPN software for connectivity to the corporate network.
D. Require WPA2-Enterprise as the minimal WLAN security solution.
E. Require Port Address Translation (PAT) on each laptop.
F. Require a managed wireless endpoint security agent on each laptop.
Answer: ABCF

7. Given: You have a laptop computer with an integrated Wi-Fi compliant MiniPCI card.
What statements describe the limited effectiveness of locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery software such as NetStumblerKismetor MacStumbler?
A. Discovery tools like those listed cannot determine the authorization status of an access point.
B. A laptop computer can only be in one location at a time.
C. Discovery tools like those listed cannot determine if an access point is attached to a wired network.
D. Rogue access points using non-IEEE 802.11 frequency bands or unpopular modulations are not detected.
E. When data encryption in useaccess points cannot be detected using discovery tools like those listed.
Answer: ABCD

8. Given: A network security auditor is assessing an IEEE 802.11 network’s exposure to security holes.
What task would save the most time if performed before the audit?
A. Identify the IP subnet information for each network segment.
B. Identify the manufacturer of the wireless intrusion prevention system.
C. Identify the skill level of the wireless network security administrator(s).
D. Identify the manufacturer of the wireless infrastructure hardware.
E. Identify the wireless security solution(s) currently in use.
Answer: E

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Exam : CENP PW0-300
Title : Certified Wireless Network Expert

1. How long, in microseconds, is the required Slot Time announced by an AP in an ERP BSS when both HR-DSSS and ERP-OFDM client stations are associated to the AP?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 10
E. 20
Answer: E

2. Which statements accurately describe IEEE 802.11 EDCA collision handling in a WMM compliant infrastructure WLAN?
A. Data frames from lower priority colliding ACs behave as if there were an external collision on the wireless medium.
B. Collisions between contending EDCAFs within a QoS STA are resolved within the QoS STA
C. WMM-compliant applications collaborate within a QoS STA to handle transmission collisions at layer 7 of the OSI model
D. The WMM specification requires use of RTS/CTS as part of the EDCAF in each QoS STA to avoid internal collisions between applications
E. Collisions within a QoS STA do not require setting retry bits in MAC headers of MPDUs from lower priority ACs
Answer: ABE

3. Which statement is FALSE regarding use of admission control in a QoS BSS?
A. The IEEE 802.11 QoS facility implements a single admission control mechanism for use in contention-free periods (CFPs) and contention periods (CPs).
B. The ACM bit is static for the duration of the lifetime of a BSS.
C. If a QoS STA desires to send data without admission control using an access category (AC) that mandates admission control, the QoS STA will use a lower priority AC that does not use admission control.
D. A QoS AP uses ACM subfields in the EDCA Parameter Set element to indicate admission control requirements for each access category (AC).
E. A hybrid coordinator may enforce admission control policies during both contention-free periods (CFPs) and contention periods (CPs).
Answer: A

4. In a Split MAC wireless network architecture, lightweight APs map user priorities (UPs) specified by the QoS STA on incoming frames to ___________.
A. IEEE 802.1D Frame Precedence Values
B. GRE Priority Bits
C. IEEE 802.1Q Tag Protocol Identifiers
D. IP Differentiated Services Code Points
E. QoS Control Header Values
Answer: D

5. According to the IEEE 802.11 standard (as amended), transmit power information is carried in which frames?
A. TPC Report frame
B. ADDTS Response frame
C. Probe Response frame
D. Beacon frame
E. Channel Switch Announcement frame
F. Measurement Report frame
Answer: ACD

6. Many autonomous access points support IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tagging. When analyzing a WLAN system using IEEE 802.1Q tags, where can the VLAN tag number be seen?
A. In the Sequence Control field of the MSDU
B. In the PLCP header’s Service field
C. In the Frame Control field of the MPDU header
D. In the Ethernet header on the wired port of the access point
E. In the Beacon Management frame’s Capabilities fixed field
Answer: D

7. Given: ABC Company has implemented a QoS capable IEEE 802.11 WLAN controller based network with lightweight access points as shown in the graphic.
What is the advantage of the access point mapping IEEE 802.11 user priority (UP) values to DSCP values in the IP header that encapsulates the 802.11 frame?
A. Direct mapping of UP-to-DSCP values increases effective throughput between the access point and WLAN controller.
B. Since UP-to-802.1Q PCP mappings are not possible at the access point, the only method of prioritizing upstream data is through UP-to-DSCP mappings.
C. The QoS markings will survive layer 2 hops that could remove 802.1Q PCP values.
D. UP-to-DSCP mappings are more granular than UP-to-802.1Q PCP mappings.
Answer: C

8. When using a protocol analyzer to capture conversations over a WLAN, you may often encounter encrypted data frames. Most WLAN protocol analyzers have a feature that allows the analyst to save and reload the captured frames into memory at a later time. Using this functionality, what task can be performed?
A. When IEEE 802.1X/LEAP is being used as the WLAN security mechanism, the authentication response frame can be replayed from a saved trace file at a later time to successfully authenticate a hacker.
B. If a user name and password for an IEEE 802.1X/EAP-TTLS security implementation can be obtained through social engineering tactics, the user name and password can be entered into the analyzer to decrypt the frames from a saved trace file.
C. An analyst can search through the captured frames looking for RADIUS frames that will disclose the user’s password.
D. Encrypted frames may be decrypted offline, after they are captured, by entering a WEP key or WPA passphrase into the analyzer.
Answer: D

9. Given: ABC Company is implementing a QoS enabled infrastructure that will support both voice and data. The WLAN controller is connected to one of three core layer-3 Ethernet switches. Each core layer-3 Ethernet switch has multiple edge layer-2 Ethernet switches attached. Lightweight APs are connected to all edge layer-2 Ethernet switches. The WLAN controller is on subnet 10.1.1.0/24, and the APs are on numerous other subnets. The APs are connected to the WLAN controller via LWAPP tunnels.
When IEEE 802.11 frames arrive at a lightweight AP from a QoS STA that need to be sent to the WLAN controller, which bits can the AP mark to signal the layer-2 and layer-3 Ethernet switches to use higher priority processing?
A. The Ethernet frame’s 802.1Q priority tag bits
B. The IP header’s TOS bits
C. The IEEE 802.11 frame’s QoS Control bits
D. The LWAPP header’s C bit
E. The UDP header’s PRI bits
Answer: AB

10. Given the IEEE 802.11 Beacon frame decode shown, determine which statement is true.
A. The access point is operating on channel 3.
B. The access point has both 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps configured as basic rates.
C. This Beacon frame came from an ERP access point.
D. The duration value of 0 ec means that this access point is operating in HEMM mode.
E. ERP mobile stations must use the RTS/CTS protocol before Data transmissions.
Answer: C

11. The IEEE 802.11 standard allows for frame fragmentation. Which two fields in the IEEE 802.11 frame are involved in numbering data frame fragments and notifying the receiving station when all of the fragments of a data frame have been received?
A. Capability Information field
B. Frame Control field
C. ERP Information field
D. Sequence Control field
E. DS Parameter field
F. Ordered Service field
Answer: BD

12. In an ERP QoS BSS using APSD, when is the Power Management subfield of the Frame Control field set to a value of 1?
A. Only in management frames sent by a non-AP QoS STA immediately prior to entering a low power state (dozing).
B. On any QoS Data frame sent by the QoS AP subsequent to a PS-Poll frame.
C. On any frame transmitted by a non-AP QoS STA using APSD.
D. Only in the PS-Poll frame sent from a STA operating in PS mode.
Answer: C

13. Given: An ingress frame arrives on the Ethernet port of an autonomous AP marked with an IEEE 801D user priority value.
Which IEEE 802.1D user priority values (by name) will assure the data payload carried by the Ethernet frame gets assigned to the highest priority WMM queue?
A. Controlled Load
B. Network Control
C. Video
D. Voice
E. Best Effort
F. Excellent Effort
Answer: BD

14. ABC Corp has just installed a single HR-DSSS access point into their medium-sized office environment. As the WLAN administrator at ABC Corp, you use a wireless protocol analyzer to troubleshoot a performance problem. You place your analyzer close to the access point, and capture some traffic from office users.
Given the screenshot shown, which statement offers the best explanation for the poor WLAN performance of ABC’s new HR-DSSS WLAN?
A. There is likely a source of RF interference somewhere around the access point. This is causing many data frames to be retransmitted, so overall WLAN throughput has been greatly diminished.
B. Due to an ERP client joining the BSS, protection mechanisms have been enabled in the BSS by the access point. These protection mechanisms greatly increase protocol overhead, thereby decreasing overall WLAN throughput.
C. A nearby HR-DSSS access point is operating on an adjacent channel causing a significant amount of corrupt frames within ABC’s BSS. These corrupt frame fragments are congesting the channel on which ABC’s WLAN is operating, thereby decreasing its throughput.
D. One of the WLAN users has moved far enough away from the access point that his client station has begun transmitting frames at the minimum supported data rate. Even when a single user uses this rate for Data frames, throughput for the entire WLAN as a whole is slowed significantly.
Answer: D

15. What events will cause an established TSPEC to be deleted by a AP?
A. Disassociation of the non-AP QoS STA using the TSPEC from the QoS BSS
B. Traffic Stream inactivity timeout
C. Reassociation of the non-AP QoS STA with another QoS AP
D. Receipt of a DELBA frame from a non-AP QoS STA
E. Receipt of an Update TSPEC frame from a non-AP QoS STA
F. A Controlled Access Phase (CAP) burst
Answer: ABC

16. A QoS STA obtains a TXOP for an access category (AC) after what two parameters are met?
A. After a scheduled service period ends
B. The medium is idle at the AIFS[AC] slot boundary
C. The backoff time for that AC has expired
D. After a Block ACK Response
E. After a Target Beacon Transmission Time (TBTT)
Answer: BC

17. The IEEE 802.11 (as amended) Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) service is capable of performing what functions?
A. Establishing a interference baseline on all 2.4 GHz channels
B. Using modulation switching techniques to avoid interfering with radar systems
C. Testing channels for radar before using a channel and while operating in a channel
D. Suspending operations on a channel with high IEEE 802.11 co-channel interference
E. Requesting and reporting of measurements in the current and other channels
Answer: CE

18. What does a TXOP Limit value of 0 in the EDCA Parameter Set included in a QoS AP’s Beacons or Probe Response frames indicate?
A. It indicates that one or more MSDUs or MMPDUs must be transmitted at the lowest basic rate during each TXOP.
B. It indicates that QoS STAs must wait for the HC to transmit a Polled TXOP before they can transmit MSDUs or MMPDUs.
C. It indicates that no MSDUs or MMPDUs may be transmitted by a non-pollable QoS STA.
D. It indicates that a single MSDU or MMPDU may be transmitted at any rate for each TXOP.
E. It indicates that QoS STAs may transmit voice MPDUs (Access Category 7, during TXOPs.
Answer: D

19. What is indicated to a QoS AP when a QoS STA sets U-APSD Flag bits to 1 in Association and Reassociation frames?
A. Which access categories are both trigger- and delivery-enabled.
B. The maximum number of data frames that should be queued by the QoS AP for that QoS STA.
C. The number of TXOPs that are requested by this QoS STA.
D. Which user priorities are mapped to access categories.
E. Which access categories are scheduled.
Answer: A

20. Given: When the delayed Block Ack policy is used between two QoS STAs, the recipient must respond to a BlockAckReq frame with an ACK frame. The recipient must then send its BlockAck response frame in a subsequently obtained TXOP.
Once the contents of the BlockAck frame have been prepared, the recipient must _______________.
A. Send the BlockAck response frame to the originator in the earliest possible TXOP using the highest priority AC.
B. Send an ATIM to the originator signifying that the BlockAck response frame is ready for transmission.
C. Include the TID of the BlockAckReq in the next TXOP Request to the HC.
D. Wait for one PIFS after the next Beacon and transmit the BlockAck response to the originator using the same AC as the BlockAckReq frame.
Answer: A

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• Exam Name : Certified Wireless Technology Specialist
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Exam : CENP PW0-205
Title : certified wireless analusis professional(cwap)

1. Which is true of the Association Identifier (AID) used in 802.11 wireless LANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame only.
C. When bit 16 of the field is zero, the value in bits 15-0 represent the remaining duration of a frame exchange.
D. The least significant 8 bits of this field are used by the wireless client station to identify which bit in a TIM indicates that the access point has frames buffered for the wireless client station.
E. The AID is used by the access point in DCF mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending multicasts.
Answer: B

2. Choose the true statements regarding wireless network discovery processes for an 802.11b network.
A. Client stations may continually send Probe Request frames on all 802.11b channels in the 2.4 GHz ISM band in a consecutive manner, regardless of their association state.
B. Access points send Beacon Management frames on all 802.11b channels in the 2.4 GHz ISM band in a consecutive manner including the channel for which the access point is configured.
C. Client stations send Probe Request frames on all 802.11b channels in the 2.4 GHz ISM band in a consecutive manner until they associate with an access point. After associating to an access point, they are no longer allowed to transmit Probe Request frames.
D. Access points send Beacon Management frames only on the 802.11b channel in the 2.4 GHz ISM band for which the access point is configured.
E. Client stations send Probe Request frames on all 802.11b channels in the 2.4 GHz ISM band in a consecutive manner until they receive at least 3 Probe Response frames.
Answer: AD

3. When the ToDS bit is set to 1 and the FromDS bit is set to 0 in the Frame Control field of an 802.11 Data frame, what might this indicate about the infrastructure and the wireless conversation?
A. A wireless client station could be sending data to a wired station through an access point.
B. A wireless client station must be sending data to a wireless station where the frame has to traverse a Wireless Distribution System (WDS).
C. A wireless client station must be sending data directly to the access point for the purpose of managing the access point.
D. A wireless client station could be sending data to a wireless client station across an access point.
E. A wireless client station could be sending data directly to another wireless client station as part of an IBSS.
Answer: AD

4. Which of the following is true regarding frame acknowledgement in an 802.11 wireless LAN?
A. ACK frames following Data fragments set the NAV of competing stations for a duration equal to two SIFS plus the next Data fragment and its ACK.
B. A client station reassociation request frames are only acknowledged with a reassociation response from the access point when roaming in a wireless LAN secured with 802.1X/EAP.
C. Probe request acknowledgement (sending of a probe response) is configurable in the access point and is always linked to SSID broadcast configuration in Beacons.
D. Beacon frames are acknowledged by all client stations configured for PCF mode.
E. Frame fragments are acknowledged individually (with an ACK frame)
F. In PCF mode, WEP-Data frames are only acknowledged by client stations, never by access points.
Answer: AE

5. When RTS/CTS is used in DCF mode, what is the frame exchange sequence between two wireless stations including interframe spaces?
A. DIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK
B. DIFS-RTS-ACK-CTS-ACK-DATA-SIFS-ACK
C. DIFS-RTS-CTS-SIFS-ACK-DATA-SIFS-ACK
D. EIFS-RTS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK
E. PIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK
Answer: A

6. Which of the following descriptions accurately describes IEEE 802.11 compliant Power Save mode operation in a DCF Basic Service Set?
A. Following a period of time in a low power state, client stations wake themselves and automatically poll the access point for traffic using a PS-Poll frame.
B. When the access point’s buffer is full, the access point wakes all client stations using a PS-Poll frame so that they can receive the data.
C. Upon receiving traffic for a dozing station, the access point wakes the client station using a PS-Poll frame so that the client station can receive the data.
D. After waking from a low power state, client stations listen for the next beacon to determine if sending a PS-Poll frame to the access point is necessary.
E. After waking at a schedule TBTT, client stations automatically send Null Function frames to the access point with the Power Management bit cleared.
Answer: D

7. A wireless network administrator has examined the frame retry counts on several client stations in a WLAN that is not using encryption, and has determined that they are extraordinarily high. For this reason, he has decided to configure station fragmentation thresholds to 400 bytes. With this configuration change, when a data frame with a 1500 byte MSDU is transmitted by one of the wireless client stations to a wired station through an access point, what will be the order and size (in bytes) of the fragments as they’re transmitted?
A. Frame1 = 400, Frame2 = 400, Frame3 = 400, Frame4 = 300
B. Frame1 = 300, Frame2 = 300, Frame3 = 300, Frame4 = 300, Frame5 = 300
C. Frame1 = 300, Frame2 = 400, Frame3 = 400, Frame4 = 400
D. Frame1 = 400, Frame2 = 400, Frame3 = 400, Frame4 = 400, Frame5 = 40
E. The fragmentation threshold setting on client stations only affects received frames, not transmitted frames
F. The fragmentation threshold setting on client stations is not a manual adjustment, and can only be auto-configured by access points
Answer: D

8. An 802.11b client station, sends a single 600 byte MSDU to another 802.11b client station while operating as part of an unsecured infrastructure BSS. Due to thresholds set on all client stations and the access point, all MPDUs over 300 bytes in length invoke the RTS/CTS protocol. How many individual CTS frames are transmitted on the wireless medium as part of the entire process of moving the 600 byte MSDU between the two client stations?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

9. The Timestamp field, found in 8011 Beacon Management frames, is 8 bytes in length and serves which of the following purposes?
A. Keeps all client stations in a BSS synchronized to within approximately 4 microseconds of the access point.
B. Allows client stations in the IBSS to pick the best of multiple beacons.
C. Used to notify client stations using power management features of how long their queued frames have been held by the access point.
D. Informs associating client stations how often to expect Beacon Management frames to be sent by the access point.
E. Allows all client stations in a BSS to calculate how long it took for the Beacon Management frame to traverse the wireless medium.
Answer: AB

10. An 802.11 data frame has multiple address fields. How many address fields are there and how are they used?
A. Two address fields, used for SA, DA
B. Three address fields, used for SA/TA, DA/RA, BSSID
C. Four address fields, used for SA, DA, BSSID/TA, RA
D. Five address fields, used for SA, DA, TA, RA, BSSID/HA
E. Six address fields, used for SA, DA, TA, RA, BSSID, HA
Answer: C

11. Referring to the diagram, match label boxes A and B with their appropriate name.
A. A = Contention-Free Period, B = Contention Period
B. A = ATIM Window, B = Data Window
C. A = Congestion Control Period, B = Arbitration Window
D. A = Frame Control Period, B = Backoff Window
E. A = Data Period, B = Interframe Space Period
Answer: A

12. How does an access point operating in DCF mode notify a client station operating in Power Save mode of multiple multicast frames queued at the access point?
A. The access point sets the Beacon DTIM to indicate that it has queued multicast traffic for the client station.
B. The access point sends the client station a CF-Poll frame with the AID subfield set to the station MAC address.
C. The access point responds to the client station PS-Poll frame with the AID subfield set to a value equal to the number of queued multicast frames.
D. The access point sets the More Data subfield in the Frame Control field of each Data frame to 1 until the last multicast frame is delivered.
E. The access point sets the Duration field of each Beacon to a value equal to the amount of time it will take to send all of the queued multicast frames to the client station.
Answer: AD

13. In which of the following IEEE 802.11a frames can the SSID be found providing the SSID is not specifically removed through firmware configuration by an administrator?
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Reassociation Response
Answer: ABC

14. ABC Company has recently installed its first access point. The access point is an 802.11g unit, and both 802.11g and 802.11b client stations will be used on the wireless network simultaneously. The network administrator has appropriately configured the access point and all of the company 802.11b wireless client stations to use short preambles for CCK transmissions. A visitor begins using a Personal Data Assistant (PDA) with integrated 802.11b configured for use of long preambles on ABC wireless network. Which of the following describes what the network administrator will see with a wireless protocol analyzer?
A. Once the visitor PDA is associated to the access point, all 802.11b stations associated to the access point will begin using long preambles.
B. The visitor PDA will not be able to associate to the wireless network, and it will cause significant interference for other wireless stations.
C. The visitor PDA will communicate with the access point using long preambles, and the access point will communicate with all other client stations using short preambles.
D. The visitor PDA associates to the access point using MMPDUs with long preambles, then begins sending Data frames using short preambles.
E. Only after the visitor’s PDA associates to the access point, will the 802.11g client stations begin using protection mechanisms.
Answer: A

15. When using a wireless protocol analyzer, it is common to see Beacon Management frames (Beacons) being sent several times per second. Which of the following statements is true regarding Beacons?
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. The reason Beacons are transmitted so often is that they are unicast frames destined to each associated station.
F. The 802.11 standard specifies that all Beacons must contain a DTIM information element.
Answer: BC

16. The 802.11 series of standards calls for use of a Traffic Indication Map (TIM) and a Delivery Traffic Indication Message (DTIM). Which of the following is true regarding the TIM and DTIM in an infrastructure BSS?
A. The TIM is a field in the Beacon Management frame that holds a map of every client station associated to an access point. It is used for broadcast traffic delivery.
B. The TIM and DTIM are both part of the Beacon management frame and are both sent in every Beacon for the purpose of announcing the modulation type and supported rate set of the access point.
C. The DTIM parameters are part of each Beacon’s TIM Information Element, and they are used to indicate queued broadcast/multicast data to client stations using power management features in the BSS.
D. The DTIM is used in 802.11a and 802.11g Beacons whereas the TIM is used only in 802.11b Beacons. The DTIM purpose is to allow for higher rates of Beacon broadcasting and thus raise overall data rates in OFDM based systems.
E. A DTIM period of 0 means that every TIM is a DTIM.
F. The first Beacon sent during a CFP must contain a DTIM
Answer: CF

17. An 802.11e compliant Data frame, also called an MPDU, may have a maximum header size of how many octets?
A. 28
B. 30
C. 34
D. 36
E. 40
Answer: C

18. The 802.11 standard allows for frame fragmentation due to an unreliable medium. Which two fields in the 802.11 frame are involved in numbering data frame fragments and notifying the receiving station when all of the fragments of a data frame have been received?
A. Capability Information field
B. Frame Control field
C. ERP Information field
D. Sequence Control field
E. DS Parameter field
F. Ordered Service field
Answer: BD

19. In a DCF 802.11g network, when is the Power Management subfield of the Frame Control field set to a value of 1?
A. Only in management frames sent by a client station immediately prior to entering a low power state (dozing) that are part of a frame exchange sequence.
B. On any Data frame sent by the access point subsequent to a PS-Poll frame.
C. On any frame transmitted by a client station operating in Power Save mode.
D. Only in the PS-Poll frame sent from a client station operating in Power Save mode to an access point after the client station awakens from a low power state (dozing).
Answer: C

20. When an access point sends an RTS frame, the duration field will contain an amount of time, measured in microseconds, equal to which of the following?
A. 2 ACK, 1 RTS, 1 DATA, 4 SIFS
B. 1 ACK, 1 CTS, 1 DATA, 3 SIFS
C. 1 DATA, 1 RTS, 2 SIFS, 1 DIFS, 1 ACK
D. 1 RTS, 1 CTS, 1 DATA, 2 ACK, 4 SIFS
Answer: B

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Exam : CENP PW0-050
Title : Wireless#

1. What wireless industry organization implements certification testing to assure interoperability of wireless LAN hardware complying with the 802.11-1999 standard and related amendments?
A. WiMAX Forum
B. Wi-Fi Alliance
C. Infrared Data Association
D. IEEE
E. Bluetooth SIG
Answer: B

2. Bluetooth devices use which license-free wireless band?
A. 5 GHz ISM band
B. 5 GHz U-NII bands
C. 2.4 GHz ISM band
D. 3.5 GHz Licensed band
Answer: C

3. The Wi-Fi Alliance implemented which hardware certification for wireless LAN quality-of-service (QoS) interoperability?
A. WEP
B. WQoS
C. WPA
D. WMM
E. WPA2
Answer: D

4. 802.11a compliant wireless LAN systems use which frequency bands?
A. 2.4 GHz ISM band
B. 5.2 GHz U-NII band
C. 5.3 GHz U-NII band
D. 900 MHz ISM band
E. 5.7 GHz ISM band
Answer: BC

5. Which wireless industry organization is described as, an association of companies working together to enable reliable, cost-effective, low-power, wirelessly networked, monitoring and control products based on an open global standard.?
A. Wi-Fi Alliance
B. Bluetooth SIG
C. ZigBee Alliance
D. WiMAX Forum
E. IrDA
Answer: C

6. When an access point is present in an 802.11g wireless LAN, the network is operating as a(n) ______________ basic service set.
A. Infrastructure
B. Active
C. Distributed
D. Point Coordinated
Answer: A

7. What is the most effective technique of minimizing battery drain by a laptop’s wireless Mini-PCI card?
A. Remove the Mini-PCI card when you do not require network access
B. Enable Power Save mode
C. Move farther away from the access point
D. Lower the transmission frequency of the Mini-PCI card
Answer: B

8. The IEEE 802.16e standard supports frequencies in what range?
A. 2.5 3.5 GHz
B. 2.4 5.7 GHz
C. 2 11 GHz
D. 6 12 GHz
Answer: C

9. Bluetooth devices use which spread spectrum technology?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)
D. Infrared Spread Spectrum (ISS)
Answer: A

10. Which statement is true regarding the ZigBee specification?
A. Establishes topology models at the network layer of the ZigBee stack
B. Allows the user to choose topology models from a list at the time of use
C. Topology models are determined by the application programmer only
D. Is dependent on topology models established by the 802.15.4 standard
Answer: A

11. Which wireless technology supports both line-of-sight (LoS) and non-LoS connectivity?
A. ZigBee
B. WiMAX
C. Wi-Fi
D. Infrared
E. Bluetooth
Answer: B

12. A ZigBee network can scale to how many nodes?
A. 2,000
B. 10,000
C. 42,000
D. 65,000
E. 78,000
Answer: D

13. The 802.16-2004 standard, supported by the WiMAX interoperability initiative, supports which features?
A. Client mobility
B. 802.16e compatibility
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. Strong security
E. Ad Hoc client networking
Answer: CD

14. What is the maximum speed of IrDA compliant serial infrared (SIR)?
A. 19.2 Kbps
B. 57.6 Kbps
C. 115.2 Kbps
D. 1.152 Mbps
E. 4 Mbps
Answer: C

15. Which wireless data technology would have its data rate most negatively impacted by bright sunlight?
A. WiMAX
B. MIMO
C. Bluetooth
D. Wi-Fi
E. Infrared
Answer: E

16. Which wireless LAN standards support a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.15.1
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11i
E. 802.16
Answer: AC

17. Which wireless LAN standard specifies the use of Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum technology?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.16
D. 802.3af
E. 802.15.1
Answer: B

18. What type of wireless LAN antenna is shown?
A. Patch/Panel
B. Omni-directional
C. Yagi
D. Ground plane
E. Parabolic Dish
Answer: B

19. The picture shows the management interface of which wireless device type?
A. Wireless LAN router
B. Wireless LAN access point
C. Wireless LAN bridge
D. Wireless LAN repeater
E. Wireless LAN media center
Answer: A

20. In an 802.11 wireless LAN, what term is used to describe the wireless network name?
A. BSSID
B. ATIM
C. DIFS
D. SSID
E. FHSS
Answer: D

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Exam : CENP PW0-200
Title : Certified Wireless Security Professional(CWSP)

1. Given: ABC Company’s ERP WLAN has worked perfectly for the last 6 months. One morningnone of the company’s 10 users can connect to the company’s only access point. When the administrator logs into the access pointthere are hundreds of users associated using Open System authentication.
What is the problem?
A. The AP has been the victim of an RF DoS attack.
B. The AP has experienced an AP spoofing attack from a rogue AP.
C. The AP firmware has been corrupted and is erroneously reporting the number of users.
D. The AP has experienced an association flood attack.
Answer: D

2. Given: A network security auditor is assessing an IEEE 802.11 network’s exposure to security holes.
What task would save the most time if performed before the audit?
A. Identify the IP subnet information for each network segment.
B. Identify the manufacturer of the wireless intrusion prevention system.
C. Identify the skill level of the wireless network security administrator(s).
D. Identify the manufacturer of the wireless infrastructure hardware.
E. Identify the wireless security solution(s) currently in use.
Answer: E

3. In this diagram illustrating an example of the IEEE 802.11 standard’s 4-Way Handshakewhat is the purpose of the ANonce and SNonce?
A. They are used to pad Message 1 and Message 2 so there is no empty space in the frame.
B. The IEEE 802.11 standard requires that all cryptographic frames contain a nonce for security purposes.
C. They are added together and used as the GMKfrom which the GTK is derived.
D. They are values used in the derivation of the Pairwise Transient Key.
Answer: D

4. Given: ABC Corporation is selecting a security solution for their new WLANand a PPTP VPN is their first consideration because it is included with both server and desktop operating systems. While the 128-bit encryption of Microsoft’s MPPE is considered strong enough to adhere to corporate security policythe company is worried about security holes in MS-CHAPv2 authentication.
As a consultantwhat do you tell ABC Corporation about implementing MS-CHAPv2 authentication in a PPTP VPN?
A. MS-CHAPv2 is compliant with WPA-Personalbut not WPA2-Enterprise.
B. MS-CHAPv2 is subject to offline dictionary attacks.
C. MS-CHAPv2 is only secure when combined with WEP.
D. MS-CHAPv2 is only appropriate for WLAN security when used inside a TLS-encrypted tunnel.
E. MS-CHAPv2 uses anonymous Diffie-Hellman authenticationand is therefore secure.
F. MS-CHAPv2 can be replaced with EAP-TLS as the authentication mechanism for PPTP.
Answer: BDF

5. Given: John Smith often works from home and wireless hotspots rather than commuting to the office. His laptop connects to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs.
To safeguard his datawhat wireless security policy items should be implemented?
A. Use an IPSec VPN for remote connectivity
B. Use an HTTPS captive portal for authentication at hotspots
C. Use personal firewall software on his laptop
D. Use a protocol analyzer on his laptop to monitor for risks
E. Use 802.1X/PEAPv0 to connect to the corporate office network
Answer: AC

6. Given: ABC Company is planning to implement IPSec VPN technology using the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol to secure their wireless connections. You are hired as a security consultant to discuss the security strength of this solution.
What statement about this WLAN security implementation is true?
A. ESP can only use 3DES encryption which causes high latency on half-duplex networks.
B. Wireless clients should be configured for NAT transparency so encrypted frames can traverse gateways.
C. ESP uses public key cryptographywhich is incompatible with the 802.11 protocol.
D. The ESP protocol encrypts the entire original frame if implemented in tunnel mode.
E. When using ESP as a VPN solutionthe implementation must incorporate SSH2 tunneling as well.
Answer: D

7. Given: You have a laptop computer with an integrated Wi-Fi compliant MiniPCI card.
What statements describe the limited effectiveness of locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery software such as NetStumblerKismetor MacStumbler?
A. Discovery tools like those listed cannot determine the authorization status of an access point.
B. A laptop computer can only be in one location at a time.
C. Discovery tools like those listed cannot determine if an access point is attached to a wired network.
D. Rogue access points using non-IEEE 802.11 frequency bands or unpopular modulations are not detected.
E. When data encryption in useaccess points cannot be detected using discovery tools like those listed.
Answer: ABCD

8. What WIPS parameter is configured to generate notifications?
A. Mobile unit density violations
B. Admission control status
C. Sensor sensitivity levels
D. Policy threshold values
Answer: D

9. Given: ABC Company has a WLAN controller with three access points15 client devicesand uses WPA2-Personal for WLAN security.
What statement about ABC Company’s WLAN security is true?
A. Intruders may obtain the passphrase with an offline dictionary attack and gain network accessbut will be unable to decrypt data traffic.
B. Traffic injection attacks are possible because the transmitter lacks frame numbering.
C. An unauthorized wireless client device cannot associatebut can eavesdrop on some data because WPA2-Personal does not encrypt broadcast traffic.
D. An authorized WLAN user with a protocol analyzer can decode data frames of other authorized users if he captures that user’s 4-Way Handshake.
E. Because WPA2-Personal uses Open System authentication followed by a 4-Way Handshakehijacking attacks are easily performed.
Answer: D

10. Given: The illustrated WLAN software tool can transmit customized 802.11 frames.
What are two uses for such a tool?
A. EAPoL flood attacks against access points
B. Auditing the performance features of a WIPS
C. Testing Role-Based Access Control features of a WLAN controller
D. NAV/duration attacks against all stations in a BSA
E. Altering physical layer frame headers for frame injection attacks
F. Changing a frame’s WEP ICV while it is in transit
Answer: AD

11. What type of WLAN attack is illustrated on the 802.11 protocol analyzer screenshot?
A. Wideband RF jamming
B. Bit-flipping
C. Narrowband RF jamming
D. Authentication flood
E. Hijacking
Answer: A

12. Given: A university is installing 10 WLAN controllers and 500 dual-band IEEE 802.11 ERP/OFDM lightweight access points as part of one WLAN domain. The WLAN controllers will work as a clusterand will support users from 20 different departments within the university system.
In this environmenthow should each WLAN controller connect to the Ethernet infrastructure?
A. Each WLAN controller should connect between the core layer 3 Ethernet switch and two access-layer Ethernet switches forming 10 distribution segments.
B. Each WLAN controller should connect to the core layer 3 Ethernet switch via a gigabit (or faster) 802.1Q trunk.
C. Two WLAN controllers should be connected to the core layer 3 Ethernet switch and the other eight WLAN controllers should be chained in series with those two WLAN controllers forming the cluster.
D. Each WLAN controller should connect to an access-layer Ethernet switch using a gigabit (or faster) connection.
Answer: B

13. How does a wireless network management system (WNMS) discover EAP usernames?
A. The WNMS acts as an 802.1X authentication server proxyrelaying information between the WLAN controller and the RADIUS server.
B. The WNMS polls access points or WLAN controllers using SNMP.
C. The client device sends the username to the WNMS on port 113 (ident service) after successful authentication.
D. The RADIUS server sends the username to the WNMS after the wireless device successfully authenticates.
E. The WNMS captures the username by telling APs to sniff the wireless medium during the authentication process.
Answer: B

14. What policies would prevent peer-to-peer attacks against wireless-enabled corporate laptop computers when the laptops are also used on public access networks such as wireless hotspots?
A. Require managed personal firewall software on each laptop.
B. Require secure applications such as POP3/SHTTPSand SSH2.
C. Require VPN software for connectivity to the corporate network.
D. Require WPA2-Enterprise as the minimal WLAN security solution.
E. Require Port Address Translation (PAT) on each laptop.
F. Require a managed wireless endpoint security agent on each laptop.
Answer: ABCF

15. Joe’s new laptop is experiencing difficulty connecting to ABC Company’s 802.11 network. The company’s wireless network administrator assured Joe that his laptop was authorized in the WIPS for connectivity to all Marketing department APs before it was given to him yesterday. The WIPS termination policy is shown in the exhibit.
What are some possible reasons that Joe cannot connect to the network?
A. Joe disabled his laptop’s integrated 802.11 radio and is using a personal PC card radio because of its updated chipsetdriversand client utilities.
B. Joe’s integrated 802.11 radio is sending too many Probe Request and EAPoL Start frames due to a corrupted driver.
C. Joe’s radio card has associated to an access point belonging to a neighboring 802.11 WLAN because it was configured to connect to any wireless network.
D. An ASLEAP attack has been detected on APs to which Joe’s laptop was trying to associate. The WIPS responded by disabling the APs.
E. Joe configured his 802.11 radio card to transmit at 100 mW to increase his SNR. The WIPS is detecting this much output power as a DoS attack.
F. Joe changed the system time on his computerand the WIPS is detecting this as a usage time violation.
Answer: AC

16. During 802.1X/LEAP authenticationwhat authentication credential is passed using clear text across the wireless medium?
A. Password
B. x.509 certificate
C. Username
D. PAC
E. Shared secret
Answer: C

17. What happens in a bit flipping attack against an IEEE 802.11 device?
A. An attacker captures an encrypted framemodifies the ciphertextmodifies the ICV to hide the change to the ciphertextand then transmits the frame to appear as if it is from the original source.
B. An attacker uses a non-linear Message Integrity Check (MIC) on his computer to form a wireless crossover connection with the target computer.
C. An attacker injects data into a wireless transmission that results in a memory access exception at the target system for the purpose of breaching security.
D. An attacker sends each frame with the first bit alternating between 0 and 1causing the target computer to disable encryption synchronization.
E. An attacker captures an encrypted authentication frameand then executes a cracking algorithm against each 0 and 1 in the frame. After the frame is crackedit is used to authenticate the attacker’s computer.
Answer: A

18. Wireless Intrusion Prevention Systems (WIPS) are used for what purposes?
A. Performance monitoring and troubleshooting
B. Enforcing wireless network policy
C. Detecting and defending against eavesdropping attacks
D. Security monitoring and notification
E. Preventing virtual carrier sense attacks by 802.11 transmitters
F. Physical layer protocol analysis
Answer: ABD

19. What TKIP features prevent attacks against the known weaknesses of WEP?
A. 32-bit ICV (CRC-32)
B. Mandatory per-packet keys
C. RC5 stream cipher
D. Michael
E. Increased IV length
F. 4-Way Handshake
Answer: BDE

20. What four tools are required to hijack a wireless station (at Layer 2 and Layer 3) from the authorized wireless network onto the unauthorized wireless network? (Select two answers that together specify the four necessary tools)
A. Access point software and a narrowband RF jamming device
B. A high-gain Yagi antenna and terminal emulation software
C. A wireless workgroup bridge and a spectrum analyzer
D. A wireless PC card and DHCP server software
E. MAC spoofing software and data flooding software
Answer: AD

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PW0-104 Practice Exams

Wireless LAN Administration Exam Certification Braindumps

• Exam Number/Code : PW0-104
• Exam Name : Wireless LAN Administration Exam
• Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
• Update Time: 2009-08-20
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Exam : CWNP PW0-104
Title : Wireless LAN Administration Exam

1. What factor is NOT taken into account when calculating the System Operating Margin of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Tx antenna gain
C. Tx power
D. Rx cable loss
E. Antenna height
F. Rx sensitivity
G. Distance
Answer: E

2. Given: Return Loss is the decrease of forward energy in a system because some of the power is being reflected back toward the transmitter.
What can cause a high return loss in an RF transmission system?
A. A Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of 1.5:1
B. An impedance mismatch between devices in the RF system
C. Cross-polarization of the RF signal as it passes through the RF system
D. The use of multiple connector types in the RF system (e.g. N-type and SMA-type)
E. Low output power at the transmitter and use of a high-gain antenna
Answer: B

3. As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion. What is the detrimental effect of this expansion in a WLAN system?
A. Linear Diffusion Loss
B. Signal Attenuation
C. Transmission Obfuscation
D. Fresnel Zone Thinning
E. Azimuth Inflation
Answer: B

4. Given: A WLAN transmitter that emits a 200 mW signal is connected to a cable with a 9 dB loss.
if the cable is connected to an antenna with a 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
A. 50 mW
B. 250 mW
C. 500 mW
D. 750 mW
E. 1000 mW
Answer: B

5. What factors affect the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received?
A. Transmitting station’s antenna type
B. Receiving station’s radio sensitivity
C. Fresnel zone blockage
D. Power over Ethernet (PoE) usage
E. Antenna connector type
F. Distance between access points
Answer: ABC

6. Given: ABC Company’s network administrator was just asked to install a 5 GHz OFDM bridge link between two buildings. He connected a WLAN bridge with a 50-ohm output to a 50-ohm RF coaxial cable. He connected the other end of the RF coaxial cable to a 25-ohm, 6 dBi Yagi antenna.
What is the maximum VSWR between the WLAN bridge and the Yagi antenna?
A. 1.0:1
B. 1.1:1
C. 1.2:1
D. 1.5:1
E. 2.0:1
F. 1.0:2
Answer: E

7. What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes between mediums of different density?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: C

8. What causes an excessively high Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) in an 8011 WLAN?
A. An impedance mismatch between devices in series with the main RF signal
B. Reflected DC voltage on the main RF signal line
C. Refracted RF signal peaks along the main signal path
D. Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent conductors
Answer: A

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Exam : CWNP PW0-104
Title : Wireless LAN Administration Exam

1. Given: A WLAN transmitter that emits a 200 mW signal is connected to a cable with a 9 dB loss.
if the cable is connected to an antenna with a 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
A. 50 mW
B. 250 mW
C. 500 mW
D. 750 mW
E. 1000 mW
Answer: B

2. What factor is NOT taken into account when calculating the System Operating Margin of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Tx antenna gain
C. Tx power
D. Rx cable loss
E. Antenna height
F. Rx sensitivity
G. Distance
Answer: E

3. What factors affect the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received?
A. Transmitting station’s antenna type
B. Receiving station’s radio sensitivity
C. Fresnel zone blockage
D. Power over Ethernet (PoE) usage
E. Antenna connector type
F. Distance between access points
Answer: ABC

4. As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion. What is the detrimental effect of this expansion in a WLAN system?
A. Linear Diffusion Loss
B. Signal Attenuation
C. Transmission Obfuscation
D. Fresnel Zone Thinning
E. Azimuth Inflation
Answer: B

5. What phrase defines Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP)?
A. Transmitter output power plus attached cable and connector loss
B. Transmitter output power only
C. Power supplied to the antenna plus antenna gain
D. Reflected power due to an impedance mismatch in the signal path
E. Power supplied to an RF antenna
Answer: C

6. What statements about the beamwidth of an RF antenna are true?
A. The lower the gain of an antenna, the more narrow one or both beamwidths become.
B. The RF signal stops propagating at the beamwidth borders.
C. Beamwidth is calculated by the -3 dB points from the center axis, both horizontally and vertically.
D. Horizontal beamwidth is displayed (in degrees) on the antenna Azimuth Chart.
E. Beamwidth is calculated using the length of the antenna element.
Answer: CD

7. What characteristics determine the diameter of the first Fresnel Zone for a 802.11 WLAN link?
A. Antenna beamwidths
B. Size of the antenna elements
C. Distance between the antennas
D. Frequency of the transmission
E. Transmission power
F. Antenna gain
Answer: CD

8. What antenna characteristic decreases as the gain of the antenna is increased?
A. Beamwidth
B. Range
C. Dissipated heat
D. Polarization radius
E. Fresnel Zone
Answer: A

9. Given: ABC Company’s network administrator was just asked to install a 5 GHz OFDM bridge link between two buildings. He connected a WLAN bridge with a 50-ohm output to a 50-ohm RF coaxial cable. He connected the other end of the RF coaxial cable to a 25-ohm, 6 dBi Yagi antenna.
What is the maximum VSWR between the WLAN bridge and the Yagi antenna?
A. 1.0:1
B. 1.1:1
C. 1.2:1
D. 1.5:1
E. 2.0:1
F. 1.0:2
Answer: E

10. What term describes the effect of increasing the intensity of an RF wave when the RF antenna lobe is focused in a desired direction?
A. Directional Extension
B. Active Amplification
C. Beam Compression
D. Passive Gain
E. Phased Propagation
Answer: D

11. In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an amount of signal strength in addition to the Link Budget.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance RF link does not account for antenna gain.
C. Fade Margin is rarely taken into account on a long-distance RF link.
D. Fade Margin and Jamming Margin are synonymous, interchangeable terms.
Answer: A

12. Which antenna types can be used in a scenario where simple receive diversity is required?
A. Omni-directional
B. Patch
C. Yagi
D. Grid
E. MIMO Sector
F. Sector Array
Answer: AB

13. Given: Return Loss is the decrease of forward energy in a system because some of the power is being reflected back toward the transmitter.
What can cause a high return loss in an RF transmission system?
A. A Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of 1.5:1
B. An impedance mismatch between devices in the RF system
C. Cross-polarization of the RF signal as it passes through the RF system
D. The use of multiple connector types in the RF system (e.g. N-type and SMA-type)
E. Low output power at the transmitter and use of a high-gain antenna
Answer: B

14. While working on a presentation document in a conference room equipped with a wireless network, you notice that, as you turn your laptop in different directions, your wireless signal strength changes. What statement describes the RF signal property that is primarily responsible for this change in signal strength?
A. The RF signal’s amplitude is changing due to a change in the visual line-of-sight.
B. The RF signal’s wavelength is being affected by varying antenna gain.
C. The RF signal’s multipath is changing the amount of RF absorbed by nearby objects.
D. The RF signal’s phase is oscillating due to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
E. The RF signal’s polarization is different than the receiving antenna.
Answer: E

15. What antenna technologies are used to help overcome null areas of RF coverage due to multipath?
A. Simple Diversity
B. Phase Dispersion
C. Circular Polarization
D. Beam Linearization
E. Transmit Beamforming
F. Spectral Clarification
Answer: AE

16. Given: A 802.11 WLAN transmitter that emits an 80 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss. The cable is connected to an antenna with a 16 dBi gain.
What is the resultant antenna power output (EIRP)?
A. 160 mW
B. 320 mW
C. 800 mW
D. 1200 mW
E. 1600 mW
Answer: E

17. What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes between mediums of different density?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: C

18. What causes an excessively high Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) in an 8011 WLAN?
A. An impedance mismatch between devices in series with the main RF signal
B. Reflected DC voltage on the main RF signal line
C. Refracted RF signal peaks along the main signal path
D. Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent conductors
Answer: A

19. What factors are required to establish a high quality 2.4 GHz point-to-point RF link at a distance of 3 miles (5 kilometers)?
A. Accurate Link Budget calculations
B. Accurate Earth Bulge calculations
C. System Operating Margin (SOM) of at least 20 dB
D. A minimum antenna gain of 13 dBi
E. A Fresnel Zone that is at least 60% clear of obstructions
Answer: AE

20. Which units of measure are used to describe relative power level changes?
A. dBm
B. dBi
C. dB
D. mW
E. dBW
Answer: BC

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PW0-100 Practice Exams

certified wireless network administrator(cwna) Certification Braindumps

• Exam Number/Code : PW0-100
• Exam Name : certified wireless network administrator(cwna)
• Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
• Update Time: 2009-09-03
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Exam : CENP PW0-100
Title : certified wireless network administrator(cwna)

1. Given: XYZ Corporation is experiencing connectivity problems with their existing building-to-building bridge link. A brick wall on the roof of one building is partially blocking the Fresnel Zone, and the connection is dropping many frames. The administrator moves the antenna to an area not obstructed by the brick wall and then realizes the RF cable cannot reach the new location.
If an RF extension cable is used, what are the likely results?
A. The data throughput rate will increase because VSWR will decrease.
B. The Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) will decrease.
C. The antenna coverage area will decrease.
D. The return loss will increase unless the impedance of the RF extension cable is equal to 50% of the antenna impedance.
E. The likelihood of a direct lightning strike will increase, placing the entire WLAN system at risk.
Answer: BC

2. What factors affect the propagation distance of an RF signal?
A. Antenna gain
B. Receiving station sensitivity
C. Fresnel zone blockage
D. Power over Ethernet (PoE) usage
E. Antenna polarization
F. Link budget calculations
Answer: AC

3. While working on a presentation document in a conference room equipped with a wireless network, you notice that, as you turn your laptop in different directions, your wireless signal strength changes. What RF signal property is primarily responsible for this change in signal strength?
A. The RF signal’s amplitude is changing due to a change in the visual line-of-sight.
B. The RF signal’s wavelength is being affected by varying antenna gain.
C. The RF signal’s multipath is changing the amount of RF absorbed by nearby objects.
D. The RF signal’s phase is oscillating due to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
E. The RF signal’s polarization is different than the receiving antenna.
Answer: E

4. What is a valid type of lightning arrestor used with 802.11 wireless LANs?
A. Coaxial arrestor with a metal oxide varistor (MOV) input circuit
B. Parallel tuned tank-circuit arrestor
C. Coaxial arrestor with a gas discharge tube
D. Inductor-based load-sensing arrestor
Answer: C

5. Which units of measure are used to describe a calculable power quantity?
A. dB
B. dBm
C. dBi
D. mW
E. RSSI
F. dBd
Answer: BD

6. In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is the amount of signal strength in addition to the Link Budget.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance RF link does not account for antenna gain.
C. Fade Margin is rarely taken into account on a long-distance RF link.
D. Fade Margin and Jamming Margin are synonymous, interchangeable terms.
Answer: A

7. Given: ABC University provides wireless access to campus buildings from their Data Center building. ABC has installed a tower on the Data Center building with a sectorized omnidirectional antenna array using 90 of horizontal beamwidth per sector.
What is the next step in configuring the antenna array?
A. Calculate Earth Bulge into the System Operating Margin (SOM).
B. Configuring the downtilt of each antenna in the array.
C. Providing DC power to each antenna in the array.
D. Adjusting each antenna’s beamwidths for optimal gain.
Answer: B

8. What phrase describes the effect of increasing the distance that an RF wave travels when the RF antenna lobe is focused in a desired direction?
A. Polar Extension
B. Active Amplification
C. Beam Compression
D. Passive Gain
E. Phased Array Propagation
Answer: D

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PW0-050 Practice Exams

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• Exam Number/Code : PW0-050
• Exam Name : Wireless#
• Questions and Answers : 180 Q&As
• Update Time: 2009-09-27
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Exam : CENP PW0-050
Title : Wireless#

1. A ZigBee network can scale to how many nodes?
A. 2,000
B. 10,000
C. 42,000
D. 65,000
E. 78,000
Answer: D

2. What is the maximum speed of IrDA compliant serial infrared (SIR)?
A. 19.2 Kbps
B. 57.6 Kbps
C. 115.2 Kbps
D. 1.152 Mbps
E. 4 Mbps
Answer: C

3. Bluetooth devices use which spread spectrum technology?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)
D. Infrared Spread Spectrum (ISS)
Answer: A

4. 802.11a compliant wireless LAN systems use which frequency bands?
A. 2.4 GHz ISM band
B. 5.2 GHz U-NII band
C. 5.3 GHz U-NII band
D. 900 MHz ISM band
E. 5.7 GHz ISM band
Answer: BC

5. The 802.16-2004 standard, supported by the WiMAX interoperability initiative, supports which features?
A. Client mobility
B. 802.16e compatibility
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. Strong security
E. Ad Hoc client networking
Answer: CD

6. In an 802.11 wireless LAN, what term is used to describe the wireless network name?
A. BSSID
B. ATIM
C. DIFS
D. SSID
E. FHSS
Answer: D

7. Which wireless data technology would have its data rate most negatively impacted by bright sunlight?
A. WiMAX
B. MIMO
C. Bluetooth
D. Wi-Fi
E. Infrared
Answer: E

8. Which wireless technology supports both line-of-sight (LoS) and non-LoS connectivity?
A. ZigBee
B. WiMAX
C. Wi-Fi
D. Infrared
E. Bluetooth
Answer: B

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Exam : CENP PW0-100
Title : certified wireless network administrator(cwna)

1. In 802.11a WLANs, what statements are true concerning the use of Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)?
A. Six (6) "pilot" sub-carriers are used as a reference to disregard frequency and phase shifts of the signal during transmission.
B. OFDM transmissions in the lower U-NII band are limited to 40 mW.
C. 16QAM modulation is used at the 54 Mbps data rate.
D. The OFDM PHY is divided into two sub-layers, the LLC and PLCP.
E. Forty-eight (48) sub-carriers are used as parallel symbol transmission paths.
Answer: BE

2. What IEEE documents specify methodologies for seamless roaming between access points?
A. 802.11j
B. 802.11d
C. 802.11F
D. 802.11s
E. 802.11N
F. 802.11r
Answer: C

3. What causes an excessive Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) in an 802.11a WLAN?
A. Mismatched impedance between devices in series with the main RF signal
B. Reflected DC current on the main RF signal line
C. Scattered RF signal along the main signal path
D. Inductance (crosstalk) between adjacent conductors
Answer: A

4. What device feature is user configurable for 802.11i-compliant wireless LAN client devices?
A. 802.1Q Tagging
B. SNMP Community Strings
C. TKIP Configuration Parameters
D. RADIUS Server IP Port
E. EAP Authentication Type
Answer: E

5. While working on a presentation document in a conference room equipped with a wireless network, you notice that, as you turn your laptop in different directions, your wireless signal strength changes. What RF signal property is primarily responsible for this change in signal strength?
A. The RF signal’s amplitude is changing due to a change in the visual line-of-sight.
B. The RF signal’s wavelength is being affected by varying antenna gain.
C. The RF signal’s multipath is changing the amount of RF absorbed by nearby objects.
D. The RF signal’s phase is oscillating due to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
E. The RF signal’s polarization is different than the receiving antenna.
Answer: E

6. What word describes an RF signal that bounces off a smooth or coated surface and changes direction?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: B

7. What facts should you consider when choosing a spread spectrum technology for your wireless LAN network?
A. An 802.11b Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) signal offers higher data rates and is less susceptible to narrowband interference than an 802.11 Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum system.
B. While 802.11g devices can use either DSSS or OFDM technology, 802.11a devices only support OFDM. Therefore 802.11g devices always use OFDM to communicate with 802.11a devices.
C. When 802.11b devices are present in an 802.11g BSS, the use of DSSS will diminish network throughput significantly over a purely OFDM environment.
D. An 802.11g system supporting only the data rates required by the 802.11g amendment can interoperate with 802.11b devices.
E. 802.11g systems use OFDM technology to obtain speeds equal to 802.11a systems and to communicate with 802.11b devices.
Answer: CD

8. What phrase describes the effect of increasing the distance that an RF wave travels when the RF antenna lobe is focused in a desired direction?
A. Polar Extension
B. Active Amplification
C. Beam Compression
D. Passive Gain
E. Phased Array Propagation
Answer: D

9. What are some common specifications for 802.11 WLAN antennas?
A. Spectral Purity Rating
B. Frequency Range in MHz
C. Impedance in Ohms
D. VSWR Rating
E. Return Loss Rating
F. Polarization
Answer: BCDF

10. Given: A wireless LAN transmitter that emits a 100 mW signal is connected to a cable with a 3 dB loss. If the cable is connected to an antenna with a 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
A. 50 mW
B. 250 mW
C. 500 mW
D. 750 mW
E. 1000 mW
Answer: C

11. You have been hired by ABC Company to troubleshoot their 802.11abgh-compliant, Wi-Fi-certified access point and wireless client devices. After completing a site survey, you identify five neighboring 802.11b access points belonging to XYZ Company; one on channel 1, three on channel 6, and one on channel 11. To best avoid co-channel and adjacent channel interference, what suggested change is most appropriate?
A. Configure ABC Company’s access point to use channel 1, 802.11g OFDM-only mode, and to operate in PCF mode.
B. Configure ABC Company’s access point to use channel 3, 802.11g-standard mode, and to use the RTS/CTS protection mechanism all the time.
C. Configure ABC Company’s access point to use 802.11a with dynamic frequency selection (DFS).
D. There is no available configuration that would avoid co-channel or adjacent-channel inteference in this situation.
Answer: C

12. Given: ABC University provides wireless access to campus buildings from their Data Center building. ABC has installed a tower on the Data Center building with a sectorized omnidirectional antenna array using 90 of horizontal beamwidth per sector.
What is the next step in configuring the antenna array?
A. Calculate Earth Bulge into the System Operating Margin (SOM).
B. Configuring the downtilt of each antenna in the array.
C. Providing DC power to each antenna in the array.
D. Adjusting each antenna’s beamwidths for optimal gain.
Answer: B

13. What is a valid type of lightning arrestor used with 802.11 wireless LANs?
A. Coaxial arrestor with a metal oxide varistor (MOV) input circuit
B. Parallel tuned tank-circuit arrestor
C. Coaxial arrestor with a gas discharge tube
D. Inductor-based load-sensing arrestor
Answer: C

14. According to the 802.11g amendment, how much separation is required between the center frequencies of non-overlapping ERP channels?
A. 10 MHz
B. 11 MHz
C. 20 MHz
D. 22 MHz
E. 25 MHz
F. 30 MHz
Answer: E

15. What is the most common mount type for installing a wireless LAN antenna to an outdoor mast (pole)?
A. Suction cups with threaded posts
B. Perforated radome enclosure
C. Magnetic mount with bulkhead adapter
D. U-bolt with base clamp
E. Tilt-n-swivel universal mount with ratchet adjustment
Answer: D

16. In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is the amount of signal strength in addition to the Link Budget.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance RF link does not account for antenna gain.
C. Fade Margin is rarely taken into account on a long-distance RF link.
D. Fade Margin and Jamming Margin are synonymous, interchangeable terms.
Answer: A

17. Given: XYZ Corporation is experiencing connectivity problems with their existing building-to-building bridge link. A brick wall on the roof of one building is partially blocking the Fresnel Zone, and the connection is dropping many frames. The administrator moves the antenna to an area not obstructed by the brick wall and then realizes the RF cable cannot reach the new location.
If an RF extension cable is used, what are the likely results?
A. The data throughput rate will increase because VSWR will decrease.
B. The Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) will decrease.
C. The antenna coverage area will decrease.
D. The return loss will increase unless the impedance of the RF extension cable is equal to 50% of the antenna impedance.
E. The likelihood of a direct lightning strike will increase, placing the entire WLAN system at risk.
Answer: BC

18. Which units of measure are used to describe a calculable power quantity?
A. dB
B. dBm
C. dBi
D. mW
E. RSSI
F. dBd
Answer: BD

19. What factors affect the propagation distance of an RF signal?
A. Antenna gain
B. Receiving station sensitivity
C. Fresnel zone blockage
D. Power over Ethernet (PoE) usage
E. Antenna polarization
F. Link budget calculations
Answer: AC

20. What determines the orientation of an RF wave as it leaves the antenna element?
A. Propagation Pitch
B. Polarization
C. Wave Front Trajectory
D. Signal Focus Angle
E. Acclimatization
Answer: B

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PW0-205 Practice Exams

certified wireless analusis professional(cwap) Certification Braindumps

• Exam Number/Code : PW0-205
• Exam Name : certified wireless analusis professional(cwap)
• Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
• Update Time: 2009-09-25
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PW0-205 Practice Exams:

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Exam : CENP PW0-205
Title : certified wireless analusis professional(cwap)

1. When an access point sends an RTS frame, the duration field will contain an amount of time, measured in microseconds, equal to which of the following?
A. 2 ACK, 1 RTS, 1 DATA, 4 SIFS
B. 1 ACK, 1 CTS, 1 DATA, 3 SIFS
C. 1 DATA, 1 RTS, 2 SIFS, 1 DIFS, 1 ACK
D. 1 RTS, 1 CTS, 1 DATA, 2 ACK, 4 SIFS
Answer: B

2. Which is true of the Association Identifier (AID) used in 802.11 wireless LANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame only.
C. When bit 16 of the field is zero, the value in bits 15-0 represent the remaining duration of a frame exchange.
D. The least significant 8 bits of this field are used by the wireless client station to identify which bit in a TIM indicates that the access point has frames buffered for the wireless client station.
E. The AID is used by the access point in DCF mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending multicasts.
Answer: B

3. An 802.11b client station, sends a single 600 byte MSDU to another 802.11b client station while operating as part of an unsecured infrastructure BSS. Due to thresholds set on all client stations and the access point, all MPDUs over 300 bytes in length invoke the RTS/CTS protocol. How many individual CTS frames are transmitted on the wireless medium as part of the entire process of moving the 600 byte MSDU between the two client stations?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

4. A wireless network administrator has examined the frame retry counts on several client stations in a WLAN that is not using encryption, and has determined that they are extraordinarily high. For this reason, he has decided to configure station fragmentation thresholds to 400 bytes. With this configuration change, when a data frame with a 1500 byte MSDU is transmitted by one of the wireless client stations to a wired station through an access point, what will be the order and size (in bytes) of the fragments as they’re transmitted?
A. Frame1 = 400, Frame2 = 400, Frame3 = 400, Frame4 = 300
B. Frame1 = 300, Frame2 = 300, Frame3 = 300, Frame4 = 300, Frame5 = 300
C. Frame1 = 300, Frame2 = 400, Frame3 = 400, Frame4 = 400
D. Frame1 = 400, Frame2 = 400, Frame3 = 400, Frame4 = 400, Frame5 = 40
E. The fragmentation threshold setting on client stations only affects received frames, not transmitted frames
F. The fragmentation threshold setting on client stations is not a manual adjustment, and can only be auto-configured by access points
Answer: D

5. The Timestamp field, found in 8011 Beacon Management frames, is 8 bytes in length and serves which of the following purposes?
A. Keeps all client stations in a BSS synchronized to within approximately 4 microseconds of the access point.
B. Allows client stations in the IBSS to pick the best of multiple beacons.
C. Used to notify client stations using power management features of how long their queued frames have been held by the access point.
D. Informs associating client stations how often to expect Beacon Management frames to be sent by the access point.
E. Allows all client stations in a BSS to calculate how long it took for the Beacon Management frame to traverse the wireless medium.
Answer: AB

6. Which of the following is true regarding frame acknowledgement in an 802.11 wireless LAN?
A. ACK frames following Data fragments set the NAV of competing stations for a duration equal to two SIFS plus the next Data fragment and its ACK.
B. A client station reassociation request frames are only acknowledged with a reassociation response from the access point when roaming in a wireless LAN secured with 802.1X/EAP.
C. Probe request acknowledgement (sending of a probe response) is configurable in the access point and is always linked to SSID broadcast configuration in Beacons.
D. Beacon frames are acknowledged by all client stations configured for PCF mode.
E. Frame fragments are acknowledged individually (with an ACK frame)
F. In PCF mode, WEP-Data frames are only acknowledged by client stations, never by access points.
Answer: AE

7. Choose the true statements regarding wireless network discovery processes for an 802.11b network.
A. Client stations may continually send Probe Request frames on all 802.11b channels in the 2.4 GHz ISM band in a consecutive manner, regardless of their association state.
B. Access points send Beacon Management frames on all 802.11b channels in the 2.4 GHz ISM band in a consecutive manner including the channel for which the access point is configured.
C. Client stations send Probe Request frames on all 802.11b channels in the 2.4 GHz ISM band in a consecutive manner until they associate with an access point. After associating to an access point, they are no longer allowed to transmit Probe Request frames.
D. Access points send Beacon Management frames only on the 802.11b channel in the 2.4 GHz ISM band for which the access point is configured.
E. Client stations send Probe Request frames on all 802.11b channels in the 2.4 GHz ISM band in a consecutive manner until they receive at least 3 Probe Response frames.
Answer: AD

8. Which of the following descriptions accurately describes IEEE 802.11 compliant Power Save mode operation in a DCF Basic Service Set?
A. Following a period of time in a low power state, client stations wake themselves and automatically poll the access point for traffic using a PS-Poll frame.
B. When the access point’s buffer is full, the access point wakes all client stations using a PS-Poll frame so that they can receive the data.
C. Upon receiving traffic for a dozing station, the access point wakes the client station using a PS-Poll frame so that the client station can receive the data.
D. After waking from a low power state, client stations listen for the next beacon to determine if sending a PS-Poll frame to the access point is necessary.
E. After waking at a schedule TBTT, client stations automatically send Null Function frames to the access point with the Power Management bit cleared.
Answer: D

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